Quote from: andkon on January 06, 2015, 04:02:11 PM
The other question is: if not religion, where does the hatred from men in group #2 come from? If same-sex sex was socially-acceptable, those men could easily have sex thus no frustration and lashing out. It's culture that prohibits that and most of the anti-same-sex-sex has traditionally come from Christianity in the West.
Quote from: vincentdigrero on January 15, 2015, 07:25:29 AM
1. "We" I am referring to greros. I am masculine. The degree I'm referring to is how we exhibit our maleness in a social setting. There are the Arnold Schwarzneggars, the Brad Pitts, the Rock Hudsons, the Anderson Coopers, to name a few famous personalities I can think of. All of these have a masculine bearing but are different.
Thanks for your input!
Quote from: andkon on January 17, 2015, 10:39:40 PM
Just exclusive heterosexuality. No one claims that most are homosexual, the split is more like 95-5 today.
So if you find an area with a majority that's bisexual, heterosexuality cannot really be exclusive for most innately. But that doesn't speak to the origins (biological or cultural) of exclusive same-sex attractions.
Quote from: andkon on January 17, 2015, 10:28:47 PM
Is this it? http://encinoman.wikia.com/wiki/Cro-magnon_man
Yes, that's the foto I was referring to
Maybe it's late, but I don't get it...
Quote from: Johan on January 15, 2015, 02:01:49 AMQuote from: andkon on January 14, 2015, 11:58:03 AM
It doesn't really matter. If you have a single area with a large bisexual potential, that shows that exclusive heterosexuality is not really genetic/hormonal/innate or anything but cultural.
[/sub]
Exclusive heterosexuality or exclusive monosexuality?